I am sorry for creating trouble with my first question on Latin SE; probably the question would be more suited for Linguistics SE in which case mods could easily move it to the appropriate site. The essence of my query was a comparison of the Latin language with the Indo-European languages from which the former derive. My assumption is that Latin is more sophisticated in all its aspects compared to its former languages, which, I understand is not a totally correct premise but given my limited knowledge in PIE I could only ask more knowledgeable users. In any case, thanks for your help.

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    Yeah you didn't create any trouble at all! Immo, you triggered interesting discussions, so well done.
    – Cerberus Mod
    Commented Feb 28, 2023 at 17:58
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    I really like the question, actually! I've wondered similar things myself.
    – Adam
    Commented Feb 28, 2023 at 18:18
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    We ask questions because we don't know the answers. Sometimes the answer is that a premise was wrong. You couldn't have known without asking, but you did know after getting an answer, so all's well.
    – Joonas Ilmavirta Mod
    Commented Feb 28, 2023 at 18:42

1 Answer 1


Well, the question has currently been voted up to +10 with no downvotes, so I don't think you've been creating trouble!

Linguistics is a good place to ask questions about PIE, but if they pertain to Latin specifically (like "did the noun cases in Latin already exist in PIE or did they develop later"), there are a bunch of historical linguists here too. The overlap between people interested in ancient languages and people interested in proto-languages is quite significant.

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